can anyone verify this?

[gejohnston]

2. apparently, the Home Office doesn't

report it, hence my reference to Jack. However the death register would might list them as "death by assault", or "violent deaths of interest to the police" by a corner's inquest but not defined as murder by the Home Office.

Kind of like the Japanese counting the murdered victims of murder/suicides as involuntary suicides.

Does seem ridiculous on its face, but truth is often stranger than fiction. That is why I ask.
When someone defends John Lott's hypothesis using UK as an example, I'm sure someone will mention this.
But this includes only England and Wales, not UK as a whole. What does Scotland and ULSTER do?